A Math Question

[Dylanfreake]

When I make a $10 DP wager and lay 20 X odds : 240(200) 300(200) 400(200) , making the house edge about .10%, and since the odds wager has no house edge, does the dime house edge only apply to the $10 DP wager?

In other words , is the house edge computed as coming out of the $10 DP or is it computed as coming out of the $10 DP and the 20X odds wager?

[House of Orange]

That $10 wager has 14 cents of -ev. Doesn't matter how much you lay it's still 14 cents. So some dipstick a long time ago added the lay money to the line money and came up with an overall value. Then touted how low you could go, with more and more odds money. But the value never changes. It's still 14 cents!

[Mad Professor]

House of Orange is correct.

The AMOUNT of the house-edge take (14-cents per $10 wagered on the PL or the DP) never changes; however, the more money you add in Odds, the larger the number that 14-cent take is divided into, thus appearing to 'lower' the house-edge.

~In a random-outcome game, Odds are a ZERO-SUM GAIN for both the player and the house.

~In a dice-influenced game (where the skilled-shooter has a valid in-casino advnatage over that wager); then Odds act as a skill-leveraging force-multiplier.


MP

[Dylanfreake]

Thanks HO and MP,

I had a discussion with some old folks at work yesterday and was talking about House edge on a number of wagers. I got home last night and it seemed to me after thinking about the PL or DP wagers and then taking or laying odds , that the overall house edge would or should only be based on the line bet since the odds wager is independent , although can only be made with a line bet.

Both of you verified what I was looking for.

Thanks.

[Blackcloud]

UNHH!!The real house edge is a quick 7-OWUT